Subject in aya 14:4, YT93

Hafeez ur Rehman
Feb 8, 2024

Salamun Alaikum,

I am just trying to workout the hypothesis that in the style of Qura~n the subject can some after the pronoun pointing to that subject. In this aya 14:4 there is another verb after letter "fa" just after "liyobayyana lahum" and the word Allah as subject comes. I am just wondering if there is another verb and conjunction letter after, then still this is hypothesis is stands true or just for one verb. Please help me out someone.

Jazak Allah kharun

عطاء اَلحیّ احمد | Attaulhai Ahmed
Feb 8, 2024

Salaamun Alaykum.

If it does so, what understanding would your hypothesis predict?

What purpose would this subject after a pronoun pointing to itself serve? Isn’t that kind of a circular logic?

Because that concept and whatever it predicts must have a pair to which it can lead in the Quran.

Salaamun Alaykum.

Hafeez ur Rehman
Feb 9, 2024

Jazak Allah Khairun,

Firstly I was not talking about my hypothesis but Dr. Hany. I was confused because there are two pronouns then referring to "Allah", and in the examples given, I might haven't understand correctly, one pronoun is referring to the subject that came later. This was the point I just wanted to get clear in head. I wasn't trying to create new hypothesis at all. So brother Attaulhai Ahmed, with due respect, be polite please in reply especially. My apologies if I got it wrong. May Allah SWT have His Mercy upon all of us, IA.

Salamun Alaikum.

R.A.H K
Feb 8, 2024

Salamun 3alaykum

Basically, I have learned here that MQ does not consider the 7th-century Arabic rules including grammar, morphology, and orthography as major references of Quran language arts; the Quran language arts are dramatically unique, they call for a great deal of Tadabbur using Al-Quran methodology before we draw conclusions. I am sure that Arabic grammar experts can fix the (إعراب) of the following verse:

وَمَا أَرْسَلْنَا مِنْ رَسُولٍ إِلَّا بِلِسَانِ قَوْمِهِ لِيُبَيِّنَ لَهُمْ فَيُضِلُّ اللَّهُ مَنْ يَشَاءُ وَيَهْدِي مَنْ يَشَاءُ وَهُوَ الْعَزِيزُ الْحَكِيمُ ﴿14:4﴾

My humble observation is that the (مفعول به) for the verb (بيّن) is spontaneously extracted from the connotations of (لسان) remanence exposal. In such a manner, it is comprehendible as follows:

(ليبيّن لهم صالحات بيوت الكتاب الجديد وأوجه فساد بيوت الكتاب الذي من قبله) فَيُضِلُّ اللَّهُ مَنْ يَشَاءُ…

Please let me know if this is relevant.